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100+ GK Questions & Answers on Indian Polity & Governance

   Published Date: 5th April 2023
100+Questions & Answers on Indian Polity & Governance

100+ GK Questions & Answers on Indian Polity & Governance

Hello friends,

Indian polity and governance refer to the system of government and administration in the Republic of India. India is a federal parliamentary democratic republic, which means that it has a central government as well as state governments, and the head of state is a president elected by an electoral college.

The Indian polity operates under a parliamentary system of government, where the Prime Minister is the head of government and exercises executive power. The Parliament consists of two houses, the Lok Sabha (lower house) and the Rajya Sabha (upper house), and is responsible for making laws and overseeing the functioning of the government.

The Indian government is divided into three branches: the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. The legislature is responsible for making laws, while the executive is responsible for implementing them. The judiciary, headed by the Supreme Court, is independent and tasked with upholding the Constitution and interpreting laws.

India is a secular country and its Constitution provides for the freedom of religion, expression, and association. It also provides for affirmative action and reservation of seats in government jobs and educational institutions for historically marginalized communities. The Constitution recognizes the importance of gender equality and prohibits discrimination on the basis of gender.

India has a federal system of government, where the central government and state governments share power and responsibilities. The states have their own elected governments, which are responsible for the administration of their respective territories.

India has a multi-party system, with several political parties vying for power. Elections are held regularly at the national and state levels to elect representatives to the Parliament and state assemblies.

The Indian polity and governance have evolved over the years, reflecting the changing needs and aspirations of the people of India. While there have been challenges and criticisms, India remains a vibrant democracy with a diverse and engaged citizenry.

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100+Questions & Answers on Indian Polity & Governance

Q 1. The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?

A. Prime minister

B. Home minister

C. Vice-president

D. President

Ans: D

Q 2. Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of the President?

A. Article 71

B. Article 74

C. Article 72

D. Article 75

Ans: C

Q 3. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?

A. Attorney general

B. Members of the legislative

C. Parliament

D. Prime minister

Ans: C

Q 4. Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the President?

A. Article 53

B. Article 56

C. Article 55

D. Article 52

Ans: B

Q 5. Which of the following article deals with the impeachment of the President?

A. Article 65

B. Article 62

C. Article 64

D. Article 61

Ans: D

Q 6. The Pressure groups are:

A. Political organisations

B. Economic organisation

C. Moral organisations

D. Organisations of universal character

Ans: D

Q 7. The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by exerting pressure on:

A. Executive

B. Judiciary

C. Legislative

D. All the above

Ans: D

Q 8. Which of the following are known as Pressure Groups?

A. Trade unions

B. Caste groups

C. Tribal organisations

D. All the above

Ans: D

Q 9. which of the following is not a feature of pressure group?

A. It tries to influence from outside

B. Its membership is large

C. It actively joins political parties

D. Its members can join any number of groups

Ans: C

Q 10. Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for achieving its objectives?

A. It finances political parties

B. It organises demonstrations

C. It clearly aligns with a political party

D. It tries to influence policy makers

Ans: C

Q 11) Which of the following commission was appointed by the Central Government on Union-State relations in 1983?

a. Sarkariya commission

b. Dutt commission

c. Setalvad commission

d. Rajamannar commission

Answer: a

Explanation: Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria (Chairman of the commission), was a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Q 12) Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union government but collected and appropriated by the states?

a. Stamp duties

b. Excise duties on medical and toilet materials

c. Sales tax

d. a and b

Answer: d

Explanation: The revenue generated from the Stamp duties and Excise duties on medical and toilet materials is imposed by the Central Government but collected and kept by the respective state government.

Q 13) Which of the following taxes are imposed and collected by the state government?

a. Estate duty

b. Sales tax

c. Land revenue

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: Taxes imposed by the state government are; Sales Tax and VAT, Professional Tax, Luxury Tax, Entertainment Tax, Motor Vehicles Tax, Tax on Vehicles Entering State, Tax on Agricultural Income, Tax on Land and Buildings and Tax on Mineral Rights.

Q 14) Which of the following tax is levied and collected by the Union government but the proceeds are distributed between the Union and states?

a. Sales tax

b. Income tax

c. Estate duty

d. Land revenue

Answer: b

Explanation: Income tax is imposed by the central government under the Income Tax Act, 1961. This tax is distributed among the states on the recommendations of the finance commission.

Q 15) Which of the following duty is levied and collected by the Union government?

a. Custom duty

b. Excise duty

c. Estate duty

d. All the above

Answer: d

Explanation: All the direct taxes are imposed by the central government. Direct taxes are; income tax, wealth tax, corporation tax. Excise and custom duty were indirect tax but merged with GST.

Q 16) Which of the article deals with the grants in aid by the Union government to the states?

a. Article 270

b. Article 280

c. Article 275

d. Article 265

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 275 is related to Grants in aid from the Union government to certain States at the time of requirement.This fund allocation depends on the discretion of the central government. It shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Q 17) Which of the following article deals with the election of the Vice-president?

a. Article 64

b. Article 68

c. Article 66

d. Article 62

Answer: c

Explanation: Article 66 deals with the election of the Vice-president of India.

Q 18) Who can remove the Vice-President from his office?

a. President

b. Prime minister

c. Parliament

d. Legislative assemblies of the state

Answer: c

Explanation: The Indian Parliament has the power to remove the Vice President of India.

Q 19) The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

a. 6 years

b. 4 years

c. 7 years

d. 5 years

Answer: d

Explanation: The Vice-president is elected for the period of the 5 years, although he/she can resign before the completion of the tenure.

Q 20) The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the ……..?

a. Rajya Sabha

b. Lok Sabha

c. Planning Commission

d. National Development Council

Answer: a

Explanation: The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause.

Q 21) Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

(a) Article 76

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 72

Ans. c

Q 22) The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(c) Vice-president

(d) Chief justice of India

Ans. b

Q 23) Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?

(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Finance minister

Ans. b

Q 24) The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed-

(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(c) 25% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha

Ans. d

Q 25). The Supreme Court of India at present contains the following number of Judges?

(a) 25 judges

(b) 31 judges

(c) 20 judges

(d) 30 judges

Ans. b

Q 26). Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Vice-president

(c) Home minister

(d) President

Ans. d

Q 27). Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?

(a) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Appointment of ad-hoc judges

(c) Judicial review

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 28). Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Article 137-141

(b) Article 144

(c) Article 126

(d) Article 124

Ans. d

Q 29). The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists of the following persons?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Two senior most Supreme Court judges

(c) The Union Minister of Law and Justice

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 30). Mr. T.S. Thakur is the ……………….Chief Justice of India.

(a) 41st

(b) 42nd

(c) 43rd

(d) 44th

Ans. c

Q 31. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management constituted?

a. 1950

b. 2005

c. 1970

d. 1985

Q 32. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Youth constituted?

a) 2010

b) 2008

c) 2006

d) 1985

Q 33. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change constituted?

a) 2005

b) 2006

c) 2007

d) 2008

Q 34. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management constituted?

a) 2011

b) 2010

c) 2009

d) 2008

Q 35. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Children constituted?

a) 2006

b) 2007

c) 2008

d) 2009

Q 36.Which of the following describes India as a secular state?

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy

(c) Fifth schedule

(d) Preamble of the constitution

Q.37 “The independence of Judiciary” in Indian constitution is taken from.

(a) Britain

(b) USA

(c) South Africa

(d) Australia

Q 38.In a parliamentary form of Government the real powers of the state, are vested in the….

(a) The President

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme court

(c) Council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister

(d) Parliament

Q 39. Which of the following amendment acts amended the Preamble of the Indian constitution?

(a) 44th Amendment act

(b) 42nd Amendment act

(c) 56th Amendment act

(d) It has never been amended

Q 40. Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in which of the following cases/case?

(a) Berubari Union case (1960)

(b) Unni Krishnan vs Union of India

(c) Minnerva Mills vs. the union of India and other states

(d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi government

Q 41. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the Parliament of India?

A. Article 73

B. Article 78

C. Article 79

D. Article 72

Ans: C

Q 42. Which of the following article deals with the composition of council of states ( Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?

A. Article 82

B. Article 81

C. Article 90

D. Article 80

Ans: D

Q 43. The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one of the following?

A. Chief minister of the state

B. Elected members of the state legislative assembly

C. Governor

D. President

Ans: B

Q 44. The number of representatives of the Rajya sabha from states and union territories are among which one of the following?

A. 238

B. 212

C. 200

D. 220

Ans: A

Q 45. How many number of members are nominated by the President to the Rajya sabha?

A. 20

B. 18

C. 12

D. 15

Ans: C

Q 46. Which among the following is not a standing committee?

A. Public accounts committee

B. Ethics committee

C. Railway convention committee

D. Business advisory committee

Ans: C

Q 47. Consider the following statements. Which among them is/are NOT true?

I. Standing Committees are the permanent committees that are constituted on a regular basis

II. Ad hoc committees are temporary committees that are dissolved when the task is completed

III. Committee of Privileges is an ad-hoc committee

IV. Joint Committee on Fertilizer pricing is a standing committee

A. Only III and IV

B. Only I and II

C. Only I and III

D. Only II and IV

Ans: A

Q 48. What among the following is NOT true about the Public Accounts Committee?

I. The committee was first set up in 1919

II. It’s main function is to audit the annual reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)

III. It consists of 15 Lok Sabha members and 7 Rajya Sabha members

IV. The term of the office of the Public Accounts Committee is one year

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. All are true

Ans: D

Q 49. Which among the following is NOT true about the Estimates Committee?

I. The first Estimates Committee of the post-independence era was first set up in 1950

II. Estimates Committee has a right to question the policies approved by the Parliament

III. It consists of members that are both from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

IV. Chairman of the Estimates Committee is always from the Opposition party

A. Only IV

B. Only III

C. Only II and IV

D. Only II, III and IV

Ans: D

Q 50. Consider the following statements about the Committee on Government Assurances. Which of the following is/are not true?

A. It was constituted in 1953

B. Its main function is to examine the assurances and undertakings given by the ministers on the floor of the House and report back on the status of these assurances and promises

C. For the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members

D. For the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members

Ans: D

Q 51). Who heads the Niti aayog as its chairperson?

a. President of India

b. Prime minister

c. Finance minister

d. Minister of planning

Q 52). NITI Aayog came into effect from?

a. 1st march 2015

b. 1st April 2015

c. 1st January

d. 25th dec 2014

Q 53). Think tank of Government of India that replaced the Planning commission is?

a. NITI dharma

b. NITI Vakya

c. NITI Shashan

d. NITI Aayog

Q 54). Which one of the following is the CEO of Niti Aayog?

a. Arvind Mayaram

b. Rajiv Meharshi

c. Amitabh Kant

d. None

Q 55). Which of the following below is the vice-chairman of the NITI Aayog ?

a. Montek singh ahluwalia

b. Abhijeet sen

c. Amartya sen

d. Arvind panagariya

Q 56). Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of above__:

a.15 Lakh

b. 20 Lakh

c. 25 Lakh

d. 30 Lakh

Q 57). Which of the following state was the first to establish Panchayati raj institutions?

a. Rajasthan

b. Andhra pradesh

c. West Bengal

d. Gujarat

Q 58). Which part of the constitution deals with the panchayats?

a. Part IX

b. Part X

c. Part IX

d. Part XI

Q 59). The panchayat system was adopted to:

a. To decentralise the power of democracy

b. Make people aware of politics

c. Educate the peasants

d. None of this

Q 60). Which of the following states have no panchayati raj institution at all?

a. Nagaland

b. Assam

c. kerala

d. Tripura

Q 61. Which one of the following is true about High courts?

A. It has original and appellate jurisdiction

B. It enjoys the power of judicial review

C. It acts as the court of law

D. All the above

Ans: D

Q 62. At present, how many high courts are there in India?

A. 25

B. 21

C. 28

D. 29

Ans: B

Q 63. Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of judges?

A. Article 214

B. Article 217

C. Article 226

D. Article 216

Ans: B

Q 64. High courts issue writs under article-………

A. 220

B. 221

C. 213

D. 226

Ans: D

Q 65. The chief justice and other judges of the high courts are appointed by which one of the following?

A. Prime minister

B. Chief minister

C. Governor

D. President

Ans: D

Q 66. Which is the oldest known system designed for the redressal of citizen’s grievance?

A. Ombudsman System

B. Lokpal

C. Lokayukta

D. None of the above

Ans: A

Q 67. Which was the first Indian state to establish the institution of Lokayukta?

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: D

Q 68. When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force?

A. January 2013

B. May 2013

C. December 2013

D. January 2013

Ans: A

Q 69. Who appoints the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta?

A. Governor of the state

B. Chief Minister

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Judge of High Court

Ans: A

Q 70. Which state’s Lokayukta’s office is considered to be the strongest in terms of power and scope?

A. Bihar

B. Karnataka

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: B

Q 71. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

(a) Right to Speech
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Ans: d

Explanation: Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

Q 72. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) In schedule IV-A

Ans: a

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

Q 73. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

(a) 45 A
(b) 51 A
(c) 42
(d) 30B

Ans: b

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution.

Q 74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?

(a) Safeguarding public property
(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India
(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism
(d) All the above

Ans: d

Explanation: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India– (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; (g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures; (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; (i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; (k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Q 75. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Malhotra Committee
(b) Raghavan Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Narasimhan Committee

Ans: c

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Q 76. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28
(b) Articles 29-30
(c) Articles 32-35
(d) Articles 23-24

Ans: a

Explanation: Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right to Religious Freedom.

Article 25: (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion. (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law— (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice; (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.

Explanation I- The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.

Explanation II- In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.

Article 26: Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have
the right- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with the law.

Article 27: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in
payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.

Article 28: (1) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State
funds. (2) Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution that is administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution. (3) No person attending any educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious instruction that may be imparted in such institution or to attend any
religious worship that may be conducted in such institution or in any premises attached thereto unless such person or, if such person is a minor, his guardian has given his consent thereto.

Q 77. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘Equality Before the Law and Equal Protection of Law within the Territory of India’?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 18

Ans: b

Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

Q 78. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(a) Article 18
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 17

Ans: d

Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability. It states: “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.

Q 79. Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right Against Exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of minorities
(d) Equality before the law

Ans: a

Explanation: Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right Against Exploitation.

Article 23: (1) Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law. (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.

Article 24: No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Q 80. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are provided?

(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV

Ans: b

Explanation: Part III of the Indian Constitution mentions the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Q 81. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India by which of the following Amendment Act?

(a) 40th Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Ans: d

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.

Q 81) National emergency is declared under which of the following articles?

a. Article 358

b. Article 352

c. Article 359

d. Article 360

Q 82) National emergency proclamation is issued in case of?

a. Armed rebellion

b. External aggression

c. War

d. All the above

Q 83) proclamation of emergency under article 352 is issued by which one of the following?

a. Prime minister

b. President

c. Defence minister

d. Home minister

Q 84) emergency under article 356 is imposed by which one of the below?

a. Prime minister

b. Governor

c. Vice-president’

d. President

Q 85) Financial emergency is imposed under article?

a. Article 354

b. Article 365

c. Article 367

d. Article 360

Q 86) In real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the advice of the following…….

a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Minister

c. Vice-President

d. Chief Justice

Q 87) The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the following?

a. Chief Minister

b. Prime Minister

c. Union Home Minister

d. President

Q 88) Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?

a. Selection of Chief Minister

b. Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned state.

c. Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration.

d. All the above

Q 89) Among which of the followings are appointed by the Governor?

a. Advocate General

b. Chief secretary of the State

c. Vice-chancellors of universities

d. All the above

Q 90) Which one of the following article deals with the Governor of States?

a. Article 150

b. Article 153

c. Article 165

d. Article 167

Q 91. Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

A. Universal Adult Franchise

B. Secret Voting

C. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

D. Communal Electorate

Ans: D

Q 92. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by…..

A. President

B. State Election Commission

C. Governor

D. Election Commission of India

Ans: D

Q 93. Members of Election Commission are appointed by……..

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Elected by the people

D. Chief Justice of India

Ans: A

Q 94. Which article of the Indian constitution says that will be an election commission in India?

A. Article 124

B. Article 342

C. Article 324

D. Article 115

Ans: C

Q 95. The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok sabha is:

A. 59

B. 79

C. 89

D. 99

Ans: B

Q 96. Which Articles in the Constitution give provisions for the electoral system in our country?

A. Articles 124-128

B. Articles 324-329

C. Articles 256-259

D. Articles 274-279

Ans: B

Q 97. The elections for Lok Sabha are held every:

A. 3 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

Ans: C

Q 98. Which among the following statements is/are false?

1. For qualifying to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age

2. A person can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same time

3. A person belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest elections from a general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat

Q 94. If a member of either of the Houses votes against the directions given by his party, he can be deemed to be disqualified

Code:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2 and 4

C. Only 3

D. Only 2

Ans: D

Q 99. What is the maximum allowed duration between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the Lok Sabha?

A. 2 months

B. 4 months

C. 5 months

D. 6 months

Ans: D

Q 100. Which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in General Elections by area?

A. Delhi Sadar

B. Mumbai South

C. Kolkata North West

D. Chandni Chowk, Delhi

Ans: D

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