NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English

NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English

NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English

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NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English:- If you are a student of class 11 or 12th and want to crack NEET exam, then given Biology handwritten notes are the best resources to do this. As we know that biology is the basic subjects in NEET entrance exam which is held by NTA National test agency NEET (UG), or National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (Graduation). NEET exam is used for admission in MBBS and BDS collages as well as alternative or traditional medicine and nursing in India. Download NEET Biology Handwritten Notes | Free 29 PDFs of Topper’s Notes from the given links of Google drive.

Here we also have provided you the best NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English on PDFDOWNLOAD. You can buy them for serious reading. NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English 2023 is very well known website for HANDWRITTEN NOTES, so we have also provided links of some best notes available.

NEET complete Biology Handwritten Notes in English 2023 he subject of Biology will help you in preparing for your final exams. Your final exams in Biology will be held in March or April. These Biology pdf notes are short, neat and clean, colored, regularly updated, and according to the syllabus set by the CBSE board following NCERT guidelines. The notes are very useful for competitive exams like NEET, AIIMS, and ACT (American College Testing), etc…. Not only our Biology short notes are suitable for CBSE board students, but also for other state board students. If you want to get high marks in Biology then you must study from these notes. To download Biology syllabus notes please read this article till the end.

Download General Science Notes PDF

Biology section of the NEET exam

Q 1. When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in a person’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

A. Safety testing
B. Biopiracy
C. Gene therapy
D. Molecular diagnosis
Answer: Option C – Gene Therapy

Q 2. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, the addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

A. Polysaccharides
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Histones
Answer: Option C – DNA

Q 3. When the centromere is located in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred to as:

A. Acrocentric
B. Metacentric
C. Telocentric
D. Sub-metacentric
Answer: Option B – Metacentric

Q 4. Which factor leads to the Founder effect in a population?

A. Genetic drift
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic recombination
D. Mutation
Answer: Option A – Genetic drift

Q 5. Which mechanism might the competing species have evolved for their survival, in spite of interspecific competition in nature?

A. Predation
B. Resource partitioning
C. Competitive release
D. Mutualism
Answer: Option B – Resource partitioning

Q 6. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

A. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
B. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
C. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
D. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
Answer: Option B – 8-nucleate and 7-celled

Q 7. What is the site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism?

A. Leaf
B. Shoot apex
C. Stem
D. Axillary bud
Answer: Option A – Leaf

Q 8. Which of the below-given plants is monoecious?

A. Cycas circinalis
B. Carica papaya
C. Chara
D. Marchantia polymorpha
Answer: Option C – Chara

Q 8. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
a b c d

iv ii i iii
iv i iii ii
iii i iv ii
ii iii iv i
Answer: Option C

Q 9. Which of the below-given algae produce Carrageen?

A. Blue-green algae
B. Green algae
C. Brown algae
D. Red algae
Answer: Option D – Red algae

Q 10. Which of the below-stated stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

A. Telophase II
B. Metaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Anaphase I
Answer: Option D – Anaphase I

Q 11. How can mutants in plant cells be induced:

A. Zeatin
B. Kinetin
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays
Answer: Option D – Gamma rays

Q 12. In the following equation: GPP-R=NPP, what does R represent?

A. Respiration losses
B. Radiant energy
C. Retardation factor
D. Environment factor
Answer: Option A – Respiration losses

Q 13. Which is the plant hormone that is used to destroy weeds in a field?

A. IBA
B. IAA
C. NAA
D. 2, 4-D
Answer: Option D – 2, 4-D

Q 14. Plants follow various pathways in response to the surroundings or phases of life to form multiple types of structures. What is the name of this ability?

A. Maturity
B. Elasticity
C. Flexibility
D. Plasticity
Answer: Option D – Plasticity

Q. 15. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. The pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
B. The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted.
C. The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright.
D. The pyramid of energy is always upright.
Answer: Option C – The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright

Q 16. Gemmae are present in:

A. Some Liverworts
B. Mosses
C. Pteridophytes
D. Some Gymnosperms
Answer: Option A – Some Liverworts

Q 17. What is the first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:

A. Phosphoglyceric acid
B. Pyruvic acid
C. Oxaloacetic acid
D. Succinic acid
Answer: Option C – Oxaloacetic acid

Q 18. Which of the below-mentioned algae has mannitol as reserve food material?

A. Ulothrix
B. Ectocarpus
C. Gracilaria
D. Volvox
Answer: Option B – Ectocarpus

Q 19. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:

A. Bright blue bands
B. Yellow bands
C. Bright orange bands
D. Dark red bands
Answer: Option C – Bright orange bands

Q 20. Diadelphous stamens are found in:

A. China rose and citrus
B. China rose
C. Citrus
D. Pea
Answer: Option D – Pea

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Most Important Biology section of the NEET exam

Q 21. Which ones mentioned below are not secondary metabolites in plants?

A. Rubber, gums
B. Morphine, codeine
C. Amino acids, glucose
D. Vinblastine, curcumin
Answer: Option C – Amino acids, glucose

Q 22. The number of nutrients, namely carbon, phosphorus, nitrogen and calcium, present in the soil at any given time, can be referred to as:

A. Standing crop
B. Climax
C. Climax community
D. Standing state
Answer: Option D – Standing state

Q. 23. Genera such as Salvinia and Selaginella produce two types of spores. Such plants are called:

A. Heterosporous
B. Homosorus
C. Heterosorus
D. Homosporous
Answer: Option A – Heterosporous

24. Pollen grains retain their viability for months after release in which of the following pairs of families?

A. Rosaceae; Leguminosae
B. Poaceae; Rosaceae
C. Poaceae; Leguminosae
D. Poaceae; Solanaceae
Answer: Option A – Rosaceae; Leguminosae

Q. 25. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called:

A. Polymorphic DNA
B. Satellite DNA
C. Repetitive DNA
D. Single nucleotides
Answer: Option C – Repetitive DNA

Q 26. Match Column 1 with Column 2.

Column 1 Column 2

a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
a b c d

iv iii ii i
ii iv i iii
i ii iii iv
iii i iv ii
Answer: Option B

Q 27. What is the role of RNA polymerase III while processing transcription in eukaryotes?

A. Transcribes only snRNAs
B. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.85S)
C. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
D. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
Answer: Option C – Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA

Q. 28. In the exponential growth equation, Nt = N0ert e represents:

A. The base of geometric logarithms
B. The base of number logarithms
C. The base of exponential logarithms
D. The base of natural logarithms
Answer: Option D – The base of natural logarithms

Q 29. Match List 1 with List 2.

List 1 List 2

a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the right answer from the options provided below.

a b c d

iv iii i ii
iv i ii iii
i iv iii ii
ii i iv iii
Answer: Option B

Q 30. Match List 1 with List 2.

List 1 List 2

a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesised
b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between initiation and mitosis of DNA replication
d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
Choose the right answer from the options provided below.

a b c d

ii iv iii i
iii ii i iv
iv ii iii i
iv i ii iii
Answer: Option D

Q 31: Sperm receptors binding in mammals are present on:

A. Zona pellucida
B. Corona radiata
C. Vitelline membrane
D. Perivitelline space
Answer: Option A – Zona pellucida

Q 32. Which meiotic prophase stage shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

A. Pachytene
B. Leptotene
C. Zygotene
D. Diakinesis
Answer: Option D – Diakinesis

Q 33. Which unique recognition sequence is identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA:

A. Poly (A) tail sequences
B. Degenerate primer sequence
C. Okazaki sequences
D. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
Answer: Option D – Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

Q 34. Which of the below-mentioned statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

A. These muscles have no striations
B. They are involuntary muscles
C. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
D. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
Answer: Option C – Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs

Q 35. The organelles present in the endomembrane system are:

A. Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
B. The endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles
C. Golgi complex, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
D. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Endoplasmic reticulum and Lysosomes
Answer: Option B – Endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles

Q 36. How are venereal diseases spread?

(a) Using sterile needles

(b) Transfusion of blood from an infected person

(c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing

(e) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the options provided below.

(a), (b) and (c) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
Answer: Option C

Q 37. In a cross between a female and male, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what will be the percentage of the progeny that will be diseased?

A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 90 %
Answer: Option A – 25 %

Q 38. Sphincter of Oddi is present at:

A. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
B. Gastro-oesophageal junction
C. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
D. Ileo-caecal junction
Answer: Option A – Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum

Q 39. Which of the following mentioned below is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

A. Improve protein content
B. Improve resistance to diseases
C. Improve vitamin content
D. Improve micronutrient and mineral content
Answer: Option B – Improve resistance to diseases

Q 40. Erythropoietin hormone that stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

A. Alpha cells of the pancreas
B. The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis
C. The cells of bone marrow
D. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Answer: Option D – Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

NEET Handwritten Notes Biology Pdf Download 

NEET Biology Handwritten Notes Part I – Download Pdf

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NEET Biology Handwritten Notes Part VI – Download Pdf

NEET Biology Handwritten Notes Part VII – Download Pdf

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