Indian Polity notes pdf in English for RAS EXAM

Hello Aspirants,

Constitution of India: India follows a parliamentary democratic system with a federal structure. The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land, adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Preamble: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution outlines the basic ideals and objectives of the Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

Fundamental Rights: Part III of the Indian Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens, including the right to equality, right to freedom of speech and expression, right to protection from discrimination, right to freedom of religion, and right to constitutional remedies.

Directive Principles of State Policy: Part IV of the Indian Constitution lays down the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles are guidelines for the government to establish a just society and promote the welfare of the people.

Fundamental Duties: Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Duties. It includes duties such as respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, preserving the environment, and safeguarding public property.

President: The President of India is the head of state and is elected by an Electoral College comprising members of both houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies.

Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is the head of government and is appointed by the President. The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha (Lower House of Parliament) usually becomes the Prime Minister.

Parliament: The Indian Parliament consists of two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Lok Sabha members are directly elected by the people, while the Rajya Sabha members are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

Judiciary: The Indian judiciary is independent and consists of the Supreme Court, High Courts, and subordinate courts. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in the country and has the power of judicial review.

Federalism: India follows a federal system with a division of powers between the central government and the state governments. The Constitution provides for a three-tier system of government – central, state, and local.

Election Commission: The Election Commission of India is an autonomous body responsible for conducting elections in the country. It ensures free and fair elections and regulates the electoral process.

State Governments: India has 28 states and 8 Union territories. Each state has its own elected government headed by a Chief Minister and a Governor appointed by the President.

These are some key points and notes on Indian Polity. It’s a vast subject, and there are many more aspects to explore.

Download GK Notes

Most Important Indian Polity Question Answer

1.The Sarkaria commission is related to which of the following?
[A] Centre and State Relations
[B] Banking & Financial Sector
[C] Elections Reforms
[D] Freedom of Press In India

Correct Answer: A [ Centre and State Relations ]
Notes:
Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen.

2.Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for Vice-President of India?
[A] Article 61
[B] Article 62
[C] Article 63
[D] Article 65

Correct Answer: C [Article 63]
Notes:
Article 63 of Indian Constitution states that “There shall be a Vice President of India.” The Vice President acts as President in the absence of the president due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.

3.Which among the following articles helped the Madarsas in India to remain out of purview of the Right to Education Act?
[A] Article 26
[B] Article 27
[C] Article 28
[D] Article 30

Correct Answer: D [Article 30]
Notes:
Article 30 is called a Charter of Education Rights. Madarsas are administrated by the Article 30.
Article 30 mandates that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 30 provides an absolute right to the minorities that they can establish their own linguistic and religious institutions and at the same time can also claim for grant-in-aid without any discrimination.

4.The language and ideals of the Preamble of Constitution of India is influenced / borrowed from which of the following constitution(s)?
USA
France
Australia
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3 ]
Notes:
The term and idea of the Preamble was borrowed from Constitution of United States of America. American Constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. However, the language of the Preamble is borrowed from Constitution of Australia. At the same time, the ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity come from French Constitution.

5.Which among the following amendments of the constitution of India fully secured the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws?
[A] 1st
[B] 2nd
[C] 3rd
[D] 4th

Correct Answer: A [1st]
Notes:
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 fully secured the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition law by adding Ninth Schedule in constitution to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review.

6.Which among the following languages was included in the eighth schedule by Constitution (21st) amendment Bill on 10 April 1967?
[A] Assamese
[B] Sindhi
[C] Gujarathi
[D] Konkani

Correct Answer: B [Sindhi]
Notes:
Constitution (21st) Amendment Act, 1967 included Sindhi as the 15th language in the Eight Schedule.

7.Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner’s Court?
[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep

Correct Answer: C [Daman & Diu]
Notes:
Before Goa, Daman and Diu became part of India, a Tribunal the Relacao was highest court in these territories. In 1963, this Tribunal the Relacao was abolished and a court of judicial commissioner was established under Goa Daman and Diu (Judicial Commissioner’s Court) Regulation 1963. The Judicial Commissioner’s Court was the highest court of appeal and revision for the Union Territory. In 1981, the parliament passed High Court of Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 act to extend the Jurisdiction of High Court at Bombay to Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and abolish the then existing court of Judicial Commissioner.

8.Who among the following introduced the Preventive Detention Bill in 1950 in the Indian parliament?
[A] Baldev Singh
[B] Narahar Vishnu Gadgil
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru

Correct Answer: C [Sardar Patel]
Notes:
The first preventive detention bill of Independent India was moved in 1950 by Sardar Patel. Patel had said that he had several sleepless nights before deciding if it was necessary to introduce the bill. Consequently, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was enacted by the Parliament on 26th February 1950.

9.Consider the following statements about Performance Grading Index (PGI):
The Union Human Resource Development (HRD) ministry is compiling this schooling index.
The Index will assess states on a 500 point grading system
Which of the above is / are correct statements?

[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 2 only
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A [1 only]
Notes:
The index is aimed at helping states understand where they may be lagging behind. The Index will assess states on a 1,000 point grading system with 10-20 points per parameter.

10.Which act signed by B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of depressed classes in September 1932 abandoned the demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes?
[A] Lucknow Pact
[B] Delhi Pact
[C] Poona Pact
[D] Nagpur Pact

Correct Answer: C [ Poona Pact ]
Notes:
The agreement known as Poona Pact signed by B.R Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes retained the Hindu joint electorate and gave reserved seats to the depressed classes. It abandoned the demand for separate electorates for depressed classes.

11.Many key features of the constitution such as the federal structure of government, provincial autonomy, a bicameral central legislature and the principle of separation of powers, are directly taken from:
[A] Nehru Report of 1928
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

Correct Answer: C [Government of India Act, 1935]
Notes:
The most important source of Constitution of India is the Government of India Act 1935 which at time of enactment had 321 sections and 10 schedules. It is source of several important features such as Federal Scheme (also from constitution of Canada), Office of Governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commission, Emergency Provisions and Administrative Details.

12.Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
[A] William Bentinck
[B] Warren Hastings
[C] Lord Cornwallis
[D] Sir John Shore

Correct Answer: B [ Warren Hastings ]
Notes:
Under the Regulating Act of 1773, the Governor of Bengal became the Governor-General of Bengal. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.

13.Preamble of the Indian Constitution based on which of the following previous documents / Laws?
[A] Nehru Report
[B] Objectives Resolution
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

Correct Answer: B [Objectives Resolution]
Notes:
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’ which was drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It was moved on December, 1946.

14.Which of the following is not appointed by the President of India?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Chief Election Commissioner
[C] Vice-President
[D] Governor

Correct Answer: C [Vice-President]
Notes:
The Vice-President of India is not appointed by the President. According to the Constitution of India the Vice President is elected as provided in the Article 66. Other three appointments are made by President of India only.

15.Whose oath as deputy prime minister was challenged as being unconstitutional?
[A] Morarji Desai
[B] Narsimha Rao
[C] Charan Singh
[D] Devi Lal

Correct Answer: D [Devi Lal]
Notes:
In the year 1990, the oath by Devi Lal as deputy prime minister was challenged as being unconstitutional as the Constitution of India provides only for the Prime Minister and ministers.

16.Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding election to Lok Sabha?
[A] The electoral rolls are prepared under the direction and control of President
[B] The elections are on the basis of adult suffrage
[C] On the request of Election Commission the President is required to make available such staff as me be necessary for discharge of functions
[D] The Election Commission conducts the election

Correct Answer: A [The electoral rolls are prepared under the direction and control of President]
Notes:
According to Article 326 the elections are held on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 324 deals with superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in the Election Commission. And electoral rolls are prepared under the direction of Election Commission not President.

17.Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha prior to completion of its tenure?
[A] President on recommendation of Council of Ministers
[B] President on recommendation of the Speaker
[C] Speaker
[D] President on his own will

Correct Answer: A [President on recommendation of Council of Ministers]
Notes:
According to Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India the Lok Sabha can be dissolved before completion of its tenure. The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of Council of Ministers.

18.Which of the following Directive Principles were added by 42nd amendment?
1. Equal justice and free-legal aid
2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
3.Protection of environment, forests and wild life
4. Promotion of cottage industries
Select the correct options from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 ,3 & 4

Correct Answer: C [Only 1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three new Directive Principles to the constitution of India which are: (1) equal justice and free-legal aid, (2) participation of workers in the management of industries and (3) protection of environment, forests and wild life.

19.In the of the following situations Ad Hoc judges are appointed in the Supreme Court?
[A] When no one is available for permanent appointment
[B] When there is no quorum of the judges available to hold session
[C] When there is an abnormal increase in cases pending before the court
[D] When some judges go on leave

Correct Answer: B [When there is no quorum of the judges available to hold session]
Notes:
As per Article 127(1) of the Constitution of India, at any time if there should not be a quorum of the judges of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue any session of the court, the Chief Justice of India, with previous permission of the President and after consultation with Chief Justice of the High Court concerned request in writing the attendance at the sittings of the court as an ad hoc judge for such a period necessary.

20.What is the process followed for judicial review as per Indian Constitution?
[A] Due process of law
[B] Rule of law
[C] Procedure established by law
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C [Procedure established by law]
Notes:
Supreme Court, while exercising judicial review, examines the constitutionality of a law based on the fact that whether it is within the powers of the authority concerned or not, which is referred to as ‘procedure established by law’. This makes the scope of judicial review in India narrower than USA which follows ‘due process of law’ for the same.

21.Gram Nyayalaya exercise the power of?
1. Civil Court
2. Criminal Court
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 & 2

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
The Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and it exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Act.

22.The Article 371-F contains special provisions with respect to which state?
[A] Sikkim
[B] Nagaland
[C] Manipur
[D] Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: A [Sikkim]
Notes:
The 36th Amendment Act of 1975 to the Constitution of India made Sikkim a full fledged state of the Indian Union. It included a new Article 371-F containing special provisions with respect to the state of Sikkim.

23.The provision relating to the reservation of seats in panchayats for the scheduled castes is not applicable to which of the following states?
[A] Assam
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Nagaland
[D] Manipur

Correct Answer: B [Arunachal Pradesh]
Notes:
As the state of Arunachal Pradesh has no scheduled castes, the provision relating to the reservation of seats in panchayats (both members and chairpersons) for the scheduled castes is not applicable there.

24.Which of the following items are contained in the eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension
2. Social forestry and farm forestry
3. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
4. Markets and fairs
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 4
[C] Only 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Notes:
The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains 29 functional items placed within the purview of panchayats. Some of them are: (1) Agriculture, including agricultural extension, (2) Social forestry and farm forestry, (3) Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity, (4) Markets and fairs etc.

25.Who amongst the following are not eligible for reservation of seats in the municipality?
[A] Schedule Caste
[B] Schedule Tribe
[C] Women
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D [None of the above]
Notes:
There is a provision of reservation of seats in the municipality of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women. For scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes, every municipality would have seats reserved for them in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area.

26.Which of the following bodies is headed by the Mayor?
[A] The Council
[B] The standing committees
[C] The municipal commissioner
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A [The Council]
Notes:
A Mayor heads the Council and he is further assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He mainly presides over the Council meetings and is usually elected for a one-year renewable term.

27.In which year was the Inland Waterways Authority of India established?
[A] 1985
[B] 1986
[C] 1987
[D] 1988

Correct Answer: B [1986]
Notes:
Inland Waterways Authority of India was created by the government of India in the year 1986 for regulating and developing the inland waterways for shipping and navigation.

28.Which of the following is the consequence if NOTA votes exceeds 50%?
[A] Elections are cancelled
[B] It does not affect the election results
[C] Election is again organised in constituencies where NOTA vote was more than 50%
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B [It does not affect the election results ]
Notes:
NOTA votes does not affect the election results even if the NOTA votes exceed 50% of the total votes cast. The winner is selected on the basis of rest of votes by first past the post system.

29.Which article of the Indian Constitution makes provision for delimitation of the electoral boundaries?
[A] Article 72
[B] Article 75
[C] Article 80
[D] Article 82

Correct Answer: D [Article 82]
Notes:
The Article 82 (Readjustment after each census) of the Constitution of India makes provision for delimitation of the electoral boundaries. It is the process of allocation of number of seats and their demarcation into territories.

30.How many group A Central services are there at present?
[A] 50
[B] 60
[C] 62
[D] 70

Correct Answer: C [62]
Notes:
Presently there are 62 group A Central services. Some of them are: (1) Central Engineering Service, (2) Central Health Service, (3) Central Information Service, (4) Central Legal Service, (5) Central Secretariat Service etc.

31.Which of the following is the essential element of crime?
1. Actus Reus (Guilty act)
2. Mens Rea (Guilty mind)
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 & 2

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
The concept of crime consists of two important elements, that is , (1) Actus Reus which refers to Guilty act and (2) Mens Rea which refers to Guilty mind.

32.Which sections of IPC cover offences related to elections?
[A] Sections 161 to 171
[B] Sections 171A to 171I
[C] Sections 172 to 190
[D] Sections 191 to 229

Correct Answer: B [Sections 171A to 171I]
Notes:
The section 171A to 171I of IPC cover offences related to elections. Section 171A mentions the definition of electoral right and candidate. Section 171B is for the bribery in the case of elections.

33.Where is the headquarters of National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)?
[A] Chennai
[B] Hyderabad
[C] Nasik
[D] Nagpur

Correct Answer: A [Chennai]
Notes:
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body established by government of India. It is headquartered in Chennai under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

34.Reserved Forest are notified under which section of the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
[A] Section 14
[B] Section 17
[C] Section 20
[D] Section 23

Correct Answer: C [Section 20]
Notes:
Reserved Forest is notified under section 20 of the Indian Forest Act which was enacted in the year 1927 or under the reservation provisions of the Forest acts of the State Governments.

35.Which of the following schedules of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 includes the animals which may be hunted?
[A] Schedule III
[B] Schedule IV
[C] Schedule V
[D] Schedule VI

Correct Answer: C [Schedule V]
Notes:
The schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 includes the animals which may be hunted. The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 contains six schedules which give varying degrees of protection.

36.The Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act was passed in which year?
[A] 1971
[B] 1972
[C] 1973
[D] 1974

Correct Answer: D [1974]
Notes:
The Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act was passed in 1974. It was passed during the administration of Indira Gandhi in order to retain foreign currency.

37.Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?
[A] To abide by constitution and respect the National Flag
[B] To promote harmony and brotherhood
[C] To uphold and protect the sovereignty
[D] Abolition of titles except military and academic

Correct Answer: D [Abolition of titles except military and academic]
Notes:
Article 18 under Part III of Indian constitution deals with abolition of titles. It is a fundamental right. It prevents the state from confirming any title except military and academic distinction. Article 18 prohibits the Indian citizens from receiving titles from any foreign state.

38.Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the World Parliamentary systems?
[A] Question hour
[B] Zero hour
[C] Resolutions
[D] Presidential Speech

Correct Answer: B [Zero hour]
Notes:
Zero Hour is the Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. It is called so because it begins at 12.00 noon. However, it does not mention in the rules of procedure. During zero hour, questions are asked about issues of public importance without prior permission.

39.The final authority to interpret our Constitution is with the__:
[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Superme Court

Correct Answer: D [Superme Court]
Notes:
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal as established by Part V, Chapter IV of the Constitution of India. According to the Constitution of India, the role of the Supreme Court is that of a federal court and guardian of the Constitution. Similar to the arrangement existent in USA, the Supreme Court is the final authority on the interpretation of the Constitution of India and all statutes and regulations created pursuant to it

40.In whose consultation does the President convene and prorogue all sessions of Parliament ?
[A] The Speaker
[B] The Prime Minister
[C] The Prime Minister and the leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha
[D] The Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: D [The Council of Ministers]
Notes:
The President convene and prorogue all sessions of Parliament in consultation with the council of ministers. Article 85 of Indian constitution states that the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its lasting sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.

41.Which of the following state has bicameral legislature ?
[A] Punjab
[B] Goa
[C] Bihar
[D] Sikkim

Correct Answer: C [Bihar]
Notes:
Bicameral legislature is a legislative system having two chambers. As of 2022, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh. Only these states have bicameral legislature.

42.Who was the first Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
[A] BD Sharma
[B] Dr. Sitaramayya
[C] GP Singh
[D] NN Wanchu

Correct Answer: B [Dr. Sitaramayya]
Notes:
Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya was an Indian independence activist and political leader in the state of Andhra Pradesh. He was a member of the J.V.P. Committee (Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and Pattabhi) which formally rejected the reorganization of states on linguistic lines. Prior to this he served as a member in the Constituent Assembly, in 1952 he was elected to Rajya Sabha. Pattabhi also served as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh from 1952 to 1957.

43.When was the First Gerneral Election to the Lok Sabha held ?
[A] 1950 – 51
[B] 1951 – 52
[C] 1952 – 53
[D] 1956 – 57

Correct Answer: B [1951 – 52]
Notes:
General elections to the first Lok Sabha since independence were held in India were held between 25 October, 1951 and 21 February, 1952. The Indian National Congress (INC) stormed into power with 364 of the 489 seat.

44.The responsibility of preparation of electoral roll in India rests with the :
[A] Parliament
[B] Local Administration
[C] Election Commission
[D] Returning Officer

Correct Answer: C [Election Commission]
Notes:
The Election Commission is a statutory body set up under Article 324 of the Constitution of India for superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of elections to the Parliament and to legislature of every state and the elections to the offices of the President and Vice – President of India.

45.In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India ?
[A] 99
[B] 39
[C] 59
[D] 69

Correct Answer: 0 []
Notes:
One of the salient features of the Indian constitution is the effort to establish a welfare state. Article 38 of the Constitution reads: “The state shall strive to promote the welfare the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice-social economic and political-shall pervade all institutions of national life.” provides a broad framework for the establishment of the welfare state ideal.

46.Under which Article of Indian Constitution an emergency can be declared on the grounds of failure of constitutional machinery in the States?
[A] Article 350
[B] Article 352
[C] Article 356
[D] Article 368

Correct Answer: C [Article 356]
Notes:
According to Article 356, President’s rule can be imposed in a state if a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Once President’s rule is imposed, the assembly ceases to function and the state comes under the Central government’s direct control.

47.Article 36 to Article 51 of Indian Constitutional mainly deals with Directive Principles of State Policy, given in ______ of Indian Constitution.
[A] Part II
[B] Part III
[C] Part IV
[D] Part V

Correct Answer: C [Part IV]
Notes:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are the guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the state of India, to be kept in consideration while framing laws and policies. These provisions are contained in Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India. They are not enforceable by any court.

48.Which one of the following is opposite to democratic state ?
[A] Despotism
[B] Republic
[C] Socialism
[D] Monarchy

Correct Answer: A [Despotism]
Notes:
Democracy is a political system whereby people elect their representatives who then administer the region/nation. Despotism is the opposite of democracy as the principle of representation is absent in it. It is mostly associated with autocratic/authoritarian set ups.

49.When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem ?
[A] 25th January 1950
[B] 26th January 1950
[C] 24th January 1950
[D] 29th January 1950

Correct Answer: C [24th January 1950]
Notes:
“Jana Gana Mana,” the national anthem of India, was officially adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the Indian national anthem on 24 January 1950. Written in Sanskritized Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed by Rabindranath Tagore.

50.In ____ government each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
[A] Democratic
[B] Autocratic
[C] Monarchic
[D] Authoritarian

Correct Answer: A [Democratic]
Notes:
Democracy is based on a fundamental principle of political equality, where each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. It refers to the enjoyment of right to vote by all citizens of a country without any discrimination on the basis of caste, creed, colour, sex or education. Thus, in a democratic country, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.

More Related PDF Download

Maths Topicwise Free PDF >Click Here To Download	English Topicwise Free PDF >Click Here To Download
GK/GS/GA Topicwise Free PDF >Click Here To Download	Reasoning Topicwise Free PDF >Click Here To Download
Indian Polity Free PDF >Click Here To Download	History Free PDF > Click Here To Download
Computer Topicwise Short Tricks >Click Here To Download	EnvironmentTopicwise Free PDF > Click Here To Download
UPSC Notes >Click Here To Download	SSC Notes Download > Click Here To Download

Topic Related Pdf Download

Download pdf

pdfdownload.in will bring you new PDFs on Daily Bases, which will be updated in all ways and uploaded on the website, which will prove to be very important for you to prepare for all your upcoming competitive exams.

The above PDF is only provided to you by PDFdownload.in, we are not the creator of the PDF, if you like the PDF or if you have any kind of doubt, suggestion, or question about the same, please send us on your mail. Do not hesitate to contact me. [email protected] or you can send suggestions in the comment box below.

Please Support By Joining Below Groups And Like Our Pages We Will be very thankful to you.

Facebook Page: https://www.facebook.com/onlyupsc/

Post Views: 153

PDF Download

Indian Polity notes pdf in English for RAS EXAM